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Unit IV · Accounting, costing and financial management
12 min readConcept sheetMCQ · cost-of-capital sums and theory match

Cost of capital and capital structure theories

Cost of capital is the minimum return investors require; WACC weights each source by its share. Capital structure theories differ on whether debt can raise firm value.

WACCΣ (weight × after-tax cost of each source)
Cost of debtKd = I(1 − t) ÷ net proceeds (irredeemable)
Cost of equityGordon: D1 ÷ P0 + g; CAPM: Rf + β(Rm − Rf)
Modigliani-Miller1958: value independent of debt; 1963 with tax: VL = VU + tD

Cost of each source

SourceFormulaNote
Irredeemable debtKd = I(1 − t) ÷ NPInterest is tax-deductible
Redeemable debtKd = [I(1 − t) + (RV − NP) ÷ n] ÷ [(RV + NP) ÷ 2]Short-cut yield; RV = redemption value, NP = net proceeds, n = years
Preference sharesKp = D ÷ NP; if redeemable, [D + (RV − NP) ÷ n] ÷ [(RV + NP) ÷ 2]No tax adjustment: paid from post-tax profit
Equity: dividend growthKe = D1 ÷ P0 + g, where D1 = D0(1 + g)Use net proceeds for a new issue
Equity: CAPMKe = Rf + β(Rm − Rf)β measures systematic risk
Retained earningsKr = Ke (opportunity cost to shareholders)Below the cost of new equity, as there is no flotation cost

Cost of debt and equity

Problem

(a) 10% debentures of ₹100 issued at ₹95, redeemable at par after 5 years; tax 30%. (b) Expected dividend ₹5, share price ₹50, growth 6%. (c) Risk-free rate 6%, market return 12%, beta 1.2.

Working
  1. (a) After-tax interest = 10 × (1 − 0.30) = ₹7; discount spread over the life = (100 − 95) ÷ 5 = ₹1 a year
  2. Kd = (7 + 1) ÷ [(100 + 95) ÷ 2] = 8 ÷ 97.5 = 8.21%
  3. If the debentures were irredeemable: Kd = 7 ÷ 95 = 7.37%
  4. (b) Ke = 5 ÷ 50 + 6% = 10% + 6% = 16%
  5. (c) Ke = 6% + 1.2 × (12% − 6%) = 6% + 7.2% = 13.2%
Answer

Kd 8.21% (redeemable) or 7.37% (irredeemable); Ke 16% by the dividend growth model and 13.2% by CAPM. Rounded to two decimals.

Weighted average cost of capital

Problem

Equity ₹6,00,000 costing 15%; debt ₹3,00,000 with an after-tax cost of 7%; preference capital ₹1,00,000 costing 10%. Use book-value weights.

Working
  1. Total capital = 6,00,000 + 3,00,000 + 1,00,000 = ₹10,00,000
  2. Weights: equity 0.6, debt 0.3, preference 0.1
  3. WACC = 0.6 × 15% + 0.3 × 7% + 0.1 × 10% = 9% + 2.1% + 1% = 12.1%
  4. Check in rupees: 90,000 + 21,000 + 10,000 = ₹1,21,000 on ₹10,00,000 = 12.1%
Answer

WACC = 12.1%.

WACC choices

  • Weights can be book values or market values; market weights are preferred in theory.
  • Marginal cost of capital is the cost of the next rupee raised.
  • WACC is the hurdle (cut-off) rate for capital budgeting decisions.

Capital structure theories

TheoryAuthor and yearKey claimOptimal structure
Net income (NI)David Durand, 1952Ke and Kd stay constant and Kd < Ke, so more debt lowers WACC and raises valueMaximum debt
Net operating income (NOI)David Durand, 1952Ko and Kd constant; Ke rises with debt and offsets cheaper debt; value is independent of the mixNone: every mix is the same
TraditionalIntermediate view, often linked to Ezra SolomonModerate debt lowers WACC; beyond a point Ke and Kd rise; WACC is U-shapedYes, at moderate debt
MM without taxesModigliani and Miller, 1958Arbitrage keeps VL = VU; Ke = Ko + (Ko − Kd) × D/ENone (irrelevance)
MM with corporate taxModigliani and Miller, 1963Interest tax shield: VL = VU + tDMaximum debt, in theory
Static trade-offKraus and Litzenberger, 1973Tax shield of debt is weighed against bankruptcy (financial distress) costsYes, where the marginal tax saving equals the marginal distress cost
Pecking orderMyers and Majluf, 1984Firms prefer internal funds, then debt, then equity, because of information asymmetryNo target ratio

NI versus NOI approach

Problem

EBIT ₹2,00,000; debt ₹5,00,000 at 10%. (a) NI approach with Ke 12.5%. (b) NOI approach with Ko 12.5%.

Working
  1. Interest = 10% × 5,00,000 = ₹50,000; earnings for equity = 2,00,000 − 50,000 = ₹1,50,000
  2. (a) NI: equity value S = 1,50,000 ÷ 0.125 = ₹12,00,000; V = 12,00,000 + 5,00,000 = ₹17,00,000; Ko = 2,00,000 ÷ 17,00,000 = 11.76%
  3. (b) NOI: V = 2,00,000 ÷ 0.125 = ₹16,00,000; S = 16,00,000 − 5,00,000 = ₹11,00,000
  4. Ke under NOI = 1,50,000 ÷ 11,00,000 = 13.64%
Answer

NI: value ₹17,00,000, Ko 11.76%. NOI: value ₹16,00,000, Ke 13.64%. Rounded to two decimals.

MM with corporate taxes

Problem

An unlevered firm is worth ₹20,00,000. An identical firm has ₹10,00,000 of debt. Corporate tax is 30%.

Working
  1. Tax shield = t × D = 0.30 × 10,00,000 = ₹3,00,000
  2. VL = VU + tD = 20,00,000 + 3,00,000 = ₹23,00,000
Answer

The levered firm is worth ₹23,00,000. Without taxes (MM 1958) it would also be worth ₹20,00,000.

MM assumptions (1958)

  • Perfect capital markets: no transaction costs; investors are rational and well informed.
  • Investors can borrow and lend at the same rate as firms (home-made leverage).
  • Firms fall into homogeneous risk classes.
  • No corporate taxes (relaxed in 1963) and a 100% dividend payout.
  • Arbitrage restores equal values when two identical firms differ only in leverage.
How NET asks this

NET asks one-line cost of capital sums (after-tax Kd, Gordon, CAPM, WACC), matches theories with their claims and authors, and tests MM's propositions with and without taxes.

Exam angle

Typical MCQ: “D0 ₹2, growth 5%, price ₹42. What is the cost of equity?” D1 = ₹2.10; Ke = 2.10 ÷ 42 + 5% = 10%. Trap: using D0 gives 9.76%.

Typical MCQ: “Which theory says WACC is U-shaped and an optimal capital structure exists?” The traditional approach. NI says maximum debt; NOI and MM (1958) say capital structure is irrelevant.

Typical MCQ: “Why is the cost of preference capital not adjusted for tax?” Preference dividend is paid out of post-tax profit, so it gives no tax saving.

Remember it

NI: debt is nice. NOI: no impact. Traditional: the middle is best. MM 1958: irrelevant. MM 1963: add the tax shield tD.