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Unit IV · Accounting, costing and financial management
12 min readConcept sheetMCQ · leverage, financial BEP and indifference sums

Leverages, EBIT-EPS analysis, financial break-even and indifference point

Operating leverage magnifies sales changes into EBIT changes; financial leverage magnifies EBIT changes into EPS changes. Combined leverage links sales directly to EPS.

DOLContribution ÷ EBIT = % change in EBIT ÷ % change in sales
DFLEBIT ÷ EBT; with preference dividend, EBIT ÷ [EBIT − I − Dp ÷ (1 − t)]
DCLDOL × DFL = contribution ÷ EBT
Financial BEPEBIT = I + Dp ÷ (1 − t); EPS is zero here

Where each leverage acts

DOL covers sales to EBIT, DFL covers EBIT to EPS, and DCL covers the whole chain.

Three leverages

LeverageFormulaRisk it showsCaused by
Operating (DOL)Contribution ÷ EBITBusiness riskFixed operating costs
Financial (DFL)EBIT ÷ EBTFinancial riskFixed financial charges: interest, preference dividend
Combined (DCL)Contribution ÷ EBT = DOL × DFLTotal riskBoth

Computing the leverages

Problem

Sales 10,000 units at ₹20; variable cost ₹12 per unit; fixed operating costs ₹30,000; interest ₹10,000.

Working
  1. Sales = ₹2,00,000; variable cost = ₹1,20,000; contribution = ₹80,000
  2. EBIT = 80,000 − 30,000 = ₹50,000; EBT = 50,000 − 10,000 = ₹40,000
  3. DOL = 80,000 ÷ 50,000 = 1.6
  4. DFL = 50,000 ÷ 40,000 = 1.25
  5. DCL = 80,000 ÷ 40,000 = 2.0 (check: 1.6 × 1.25 = 2.0)
  6. So a 10% rise in sales lifts EBIT by 16% (to ₹58,000) and EPS by 20%
Answer

DOL 1.6; DFL 1.25; DCL 2.0.

EBIT-EPS indifference point

Problem

A firm needs ₹10,00,000. Plan A: all equity, 1,00,000 shares of ₹10. Plan B: 50,000 shares of ₹10 plus ₹5,00,000 of 10% debt. Tax 30%.

Working
  1. Plan B interest = 10% × 5,00,000 = ₹50,000
  2. Set EPS equal: X(1 − 0.30) ÷ 1,00,000 = (X − 50,000)(1 − 0.30) ÷ 50,000
  3. Tax cancels: X ÷ 1,00,000 = (X − 50,000) ÷ 50,000, so X = 2X − 1,00,000
  4. X = ₹1,00,000
  5. Check: EPS under A = 1,00,000 × 0.70 ÷ 1,00,000 = ₹0.70; under B = 50,000 × 0.70 ÷ 50,000 = ₹0.70
  6. At EBIT ₹1,50,000: A gives ₹1.05 and B gives ₹1.40, so above the point the debt plan wins
Answer

Indifference EBIT = ₹1,00,000, where EPS is ₹0.70 under both plans.

Financial break-even point

Problem

Interest ₹40,000; preference dividend ₹21,000; tax 30%.

Working
  1. Pre-tax earnings needed for the preference dividend = 21,000 ÷ (1 − 0.30) = ₹30,000
  2. Financial BEP = 40,000 + 30,000 = ₹70,000 of EBIT
  3. Check: at EBIT ₹70,000, EBT = ₹30,000; tax ₹9,000; PAT ₹21,000; after preference dividend ₹21,000, nothing is left for equity
Answer

Financial BEP = EBIT of ₹70,000; EPS is zero at this level.

Reading EBIT-EPS analysis

  • Financial leverage is favourable (trading on equity works) when the return on assets exceeds the cost of debt.
  • Above the indifference point, the plan with more debt gives higher EPS; below it, the equity plan does.
  • Short cut without preference shares: indifference EBIT = (N1 × I2 − N2 × I1) ÷ (N1 − N2).
  • On an EBIT-EPS chart, each plan's line meets the EBIT axis at its financial break-even point.
  • DOL is very high just above operating break-even and falls as sales grow.
  • High DOL with high DFL means very high total risk, so firms usually balance one against the other.
How NET asks this

NET gives sales, costs and interest and asks for DOL, DFL or DCL, the EPS change from a sales change, the indifference EBIT of two plans or the financial break-even point.

Exam angle

Typical MCQ: “DOL is 2 and DFL is 1.5. If sales rise 10%, by how much does EPS rise?” DCL = 3, so EPS rises 30%. Trap: adding the leverages (3.5) instead of multiplying.

Typical MCQ: “What is EPS at the financial break-even point?” Zero. EBIT just covers interest and the pre-tax equivalent of the preference dividend.

Remember it

Operating leverage: sales to EBIT. Financial leverage: EBIT to EPS. Multiply them for the whole chain.